I know I'll get sent to the "use the advanced search" broomcloset for asking but I've tried and have been reading for over an hour with no luck.
If it's been asked and answered before...my apologies in advance, if not good finally a new C&R question.
I am attempting to purchase a C&R handgun (pre-WWII WalthePP) but from an individual out of state. Can I do this without the use of an FFL transfer (the seller is not an 01 nor an 03 FFL)? If need be then can his FFL ship directly to me as an 03 FFL holder? The seller claims he cannot ship to me and his FFL can only ship to another 01 FFL. Is this just professional courtesy on the FFLs part? I've purchased from dealers/distributors and had handguns shipped directly to me before. Why would this be different?
Thanks
(MEA CULPA, MEA CULPA...IANAL so maybe I can't spell in latin either)
If it's been asked and answered before...my apologies in advance, if not good finally a new C&R question.
I am attempting to purchase a C&R handgun (pre-WWII WalthePP) but from an individual out of state. Can I do this without the use of an FFL transfer (the seller is not an 01 nor an 03 FFL)? If need be then can his FFL ship directly to me as an 03 FFL holder? The seller claims he cannot ship to me and his FFL can only ship to another 01 FFL. Is this just professional courtesy on the FFLs part? I've purchased from dealers/distributors and had handguns shipped directly to me before. Why would this be different?
Thanks
(MEA CULPA, MEA CULPA...IANAL so maybe I can't spell in latin either)