The answer is NO. 'Any court' is any US court. A court that is not subject to the US Constitution is not 'any court'.
I have a little (true) story about this.
Guy immigrants to the US, becomes a US Citizen. He applies for and is granted an LTC in Massachusetts. What he doesn't disclose on his LTC application is a conviction in his home country for a non-violent offense for which he could have served a multi-year jail term.
At some point he applies for a pardon in his country of origin. As part of the pardon process, the country of origin does a background check and contacts his local PD. When the PD finds out about the conviction, they suspend his LTC because 1) he's a prohibited person due to the prior conviction, 2) he was untruthful on his application, 3) he's unsuitable due to his prior conviction. His pardon is granted shortly afterwards.
He then appeals the suspension in district court (pro se no less) arguing that US v Small is controlling and that his foreign conviction is not a disqualification. The court rules that Supreme Court precedent is binding and overrules the PD with respect to the first two reasons. However, the court upholds the suspension based only upon the chief's determination of suitability.