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Murder Rates: Why Comparing The United States Only To Other Developed Countries Is De

Interesting information. I read another piece that claimed most crime was committed in metropolitan areas with a population over" ____". They then concluded that the U.S. Had more of these areas than other countries. When only those areas were compared, violent crime as well as murder was at a similar level to most everywhere they compared. Regardless, statistics are nothing more than opinions disguised as science.
 
<SARCASM>Clearly the problem isn't poverty, it's income inequality. If nearly everybody is dirt poor, nobody knows they need to feel bad about it.</SARCASM>

Interesting information. I read another piece that claimed most crime was committed in metropolitan areas with a population over" ____". They then concluded that the U.S. Had more of these areas than other countries. When only those areas were compared, violent crime as well as murder was at a similar level to most everywhere they compared. Regardless, statistics are nothing more than opinions disguised as science.
Population density isn't the sole factor in crime rates “high density can highlight inequalities and can provide more opportunities for crime (Gillis, 1974). It may make distinctions between rich and poor more visible and so generate conflict. It might also increase contact between individuals and thus increase the likelihood of interpersonal violence

Another issue is the unreasonable choice to compare "the USA" with individual cherry-picked European countries, as if all US states are identical. You could compare individual US states with individual EU nations, but then they'd need to explain why Maine, Vermont, New Hampshire (and Utah, Iowa, Idaho, etc) have less crime than many EU countries, and murder rates on par with several EU member nations.
 
Maybe I missed it but when they mention murder rate is that by firearm?
Since The International Libertarian isn't anti-gun, they reject the standard practice of talking exclusively about "firearms homicides", but instead use the total murder rate.

Any way you cut the data, comparing countries is difficult, for example England and Wales don't report homicides, they only report cases where a conviction was made!
CPRC said:
While this adjustment reduces overall homicides by about 15 percent, it has a larger impact on firearm homicides because those tend to be the ones most likely to involve gang fights that are much more difficult to solve. The problem isn’t just that it reduces the recorded homicide rate in England and Wales, but there would be a sizable reduction in the reported US homicide rate if this approach were used here. For example, from 2000 to 2008 only about 62 percent of US homicides are even cleared by arrest. The numbers in the UK appear to be only adjusted based on cases where charges are brought. In that case, it is useful to note that in the US only about half of those arrested are eventually convicted

Here's an eye chart:

 
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