Those two quotes bothered me. Are they accurate? I think not, as my understanding has been that the idea that the 2nd amendment described a collective right was something that was introduced in the 20th century by some anti-gun activism based on outlier court rulings and that there was plenty of judicial precedence that supported the correct interpretation that the 2nd amendment is an individual right and the Militia language is not a limiter on individual ownership of firearms. There is that other thread that discusses this. Annoys me to see inaccuracies that continue to be reported as fact.